The integument includes all of the following except
A. skin
B. hair
C. nails
D. sweat glades
E. surface capillaries
E. surface capillaries
Blood vessels are found in the
A. stratum corneum
B. dermis
C. stratum basale
D. subcutaneous layer
E. dermis and subcutaneous layer
E. dermis and subcutaneous layer
Blisters are
A. confined to epidermis
B. originate in the dermis
C. originate in the subcutaneous layer
D. result from a separation of epidermis from dermis
E. None of the choices are correct
D. result from a separation of epidermis from dermis
Protective features of the skin include all but
A. keratinized surface
B.resident biota
C. antimicrobial peptides
D. high pH
E. lysozyme
D. high pH
What enzyme is not found in Staphylococcus epidermis but is found in Staphylococcus aureus?
A. peroxidase
B. catalase
C. lysozyme
D. coagulase
E. lipase
D. coagulase
The causative agent of acne is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Micrococcus luteus
C. Propionibacterium acnes
D. Streptococcus epidermidis
E. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Propionibacterium acnes
The enzyme that coagulates plasma is
A. catalase
B. coagulase
C. hyaluronidase
D. staphylokinase
E. kinase
B. coagulase
Necrotizing fasciitis is
A. also called impetigo
B. occurs in response to superantigens
C. associated with strains of Neisseria gonorrheae producing destructive enzymes and toxins
D. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis
E. All of the choices are correct
D. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis
Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo?
A. fomites
B. direct contact
C. mechanical vectors
D. blood
E. body fluids
B. direct contact
Impetigo is caused by
A. Propionibacterium acnes
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
E. both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pyogenes binds to plasminogen and then secrets _______ that creates plasmin that degrades tissue.
A. streptokinase
B. M protein
C. exfoliative toxin A
D. hyaluronidase
E. coagulase
A. streptokinase
MRSAs are Staphylococcus aureus strains that are
A. resistant to mupirocin
B. responsive to mupirocin
C. resistant to penicillin derivatives
D. responsive to penicillin derivatives
E. related to Streptococcus pyogenes
C. resistant to penicillin derivatives
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except
A. meningitis
B. furuncles and carbuncles
C. impetigo
D. scalded skin syndrome
E. acne
E. acne
All of the following pertain to Streptococcus pyogenes except
A. is often from an endogenous source
B. secretes streptokinase
C. causes impetigo
D. coats itself with host proteins
E. causes gas gangrene
E. causes gas gangrene
Steptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following except
A. necrotizing fasciitis
B. erysipelas
C. impetigo
D. scarlet fever
E. scalded skin syndrome
E. scalded skin syndrome
Which of the following is not true of cellulitis?
A. caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes
B. occurs in epidermis
C. causes pain, tenderness, swelling, and warmth
D. lymphangitis may occur
E. treated with cephalexin
B. occurs in epidermis
The smallpox vaccine uses the ______ virus.
A. small pox
B. herpes simplex
C. vaccinia
D. herpes virus 6
E. None of choices is correct
C. vaccinia
Chickenpox
A. is transmitted by droplet contact
B. lesion distribution is centripetal
C. has an incubation of 10 to 20 days
D. has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Varicella-zoster virus (human herpesvirus-3)
A. uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry
B. becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes
C. has humans as its reservoir
D. causes chickenpox and shingles
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with
A. herpes labialis
B. shingles
C. chickenpox
D. infectious mononucleosis
E. herpes keratitis
C. chickenpox
Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with
A. croup
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. measles (rubeola)
E. rubella
D. measles (rubeola)
Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization?
A. contains attenuated virus
B. contains toxoids
C. is given in early childhood
D. protects against three different viral diseases
E. None of the choices are correct
B. contains toxoids
All of the following pertain to measles (rubeola) except
A. transmitted by direct contact with the rash
B. humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen
C. secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis can occur
D. involves a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
E. dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis are symptoms
A. transmitted by direct contact with the rash
Measles is also known as
A. rubella
B. shingles
C. rubeola
D. fifth disease
E. varicella
C. rubeola
This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage:
A. croup
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. measles (rubeola)
E. rubella
E. rubella
Rubella is
A. caused by the measles virus ( Morbillivirus)
B. a very contagious disease
C. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects.
D. seen as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia
E. All of the choices are correct
C. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects.
Fifth disease
A. is caused by Parvovirus B19
B. is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks
C. is not treatable at this time with vaccination
D. has a maculopapular rash that lasts for days to weeks
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which is incorrect about warts?
A. caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV)
B. are transmitted by direct contact or fomites
C. include deep plantar warts on soles of the feet
D. are frequently cancerous
E. freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal
D. are frequently cancerous
Which of the following provides the eye with its best defense against microorganisms?
A. conjunctiva
B. eyelids
C. lymphocytes
D. tears
E. eyelashes
D. tears
Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?
A. transmitted through both direct and indirect contact
B. can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. treatment is with a broad-spectrum tropical antibiotic
D. has a clear discharge
E. can be caused by Straphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. has a clear discharge
Which is true of viral conjunctivitis?
A. caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. has mucopurulent discharge
C. caused by adenoviruses
D. must be treated with tropical and oral antibiotics
E. caused by Moraxella
C. caused by adenoviruses
Keratitis is usually caused by
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. herpes simplex
D. neisseria gonorrhaeae
E. All of the choices are correct
C. herpes simplex
What is the only way to prevent conjunctivitis?
A. wear insect repellent
B. good hygiene
C. trifluridine or acyclovir treatment
D. ivermectin treatment
E. prophylactic antibiotics
B. good hygiene
Cerebrospinal fluid is found in
A. pia mater
B. dura mater
C. subarachnoid space
D. arachnoid mater
E. All of the choices are correct
C. subarachnoid space
Place the following in order from skull to brain: 1) subaraschnoid space 2) arachnoid mater 3) dura mater 4) pia mater.
A. subarachnoid space, arachnoid space, dura mater, pia mater
B. dura mater, archnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater
C. dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater, subarachnoid space
D. arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater, pia mater
E. pia mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater
B. dura mater, archnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater
The concept of "immunologically privileged" explains why the CNS
A. has a greater immune response that the rest of the body
B. has a reduced immune response compared to the est of the body
C. has a completely different set of immune responses
D. has more MHC markers that other tissues
E. All of the choices are correct
B. has a reduced immune response compared to the est of the body
Which type of neuroglia has phagocyctic capabilities in the CNS?
A. astrocytes
B. schwann cells
C. macrophages
D. microglial cells
E. neurons
D. microglial cells
What brain defenses restricts substances from entering the brain by the vascular system?
A. meninges
B. blood-brain barrier
C. macrophages
D. microglia
E. cranium
B. blood-brain barrier
The normal biota of the CNS consists of
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. herpes simplex I
C. herpes simplex II
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
E. The CNS has no normal biota
E. The CNS has no normal biota
Meningococcemia is
A. best treated with penicillin G
B. associated with vascular collapse, hemorrhage, and petechiae
C. strated from a nasopharyngeal infection
D. caused by a gram-negative diplococcus
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except
A. virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease.
B. causes a serious meningitis
C. reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers
D. more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks
E. common cause of bacterial pneumonia
E. common cause of bacterial pneumonia
Which of the following is a sign of meningitis?
A. headache
B. stiff neck
C. white blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid
D. fever
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Meningococci initially colonize the
A. lacrimal ducts
B. oral mucosa
C. nasopharynx
D. eustachian tube
E. All of the choices are correct
C. nasopharynx
Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by
A. casual contact
B. close contact
C. intimate contact
D. indirect contact
E. fomites
B. close contact
Treatment of Neisseria meningitidis consists of
A. vancomycin
B. penicillin G orally
C. penicillin G intravenously
D. rifampin
E. tetracycline
C. penicillin G intravenously
The virulence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is associated with its
A. fimbriae
B. neurotoxin
C. enterotoxin
D. capsule
E. None of the choices is correct
D. capsule
Prophylactic rifampin is indicated for individuals in close contact with patients infected by
A. neisseria menigitidis
B. listeria monocytogenes
C. crytococcus neoformans
D. coccidiodes immitis
E. streptococcus agalactiae
A. neisseria menigitidis
Which organism is common cause of meningitis is AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Crytococcus neoformans
E. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. Crytococcus neoformans
Cryptococcus neoformans is a
A. virus
B. bacteria
C. prion
D. fungus
E. helminth
D. fungus
Although many viruses can cause meningitis, the most common viral is
A. measles
B. cytomegalovirus
C. arbovirus
D. enterovirus
E. arenavirus
D. enterovirus
Neonatal meningitis is most commonly transmitted by
A. breast feeding
B. hospital personnel
C. transplacental infection
D. exposure in birth canal
E. exposure from other infants
D. exposure in birth canal
The organism responsible for majority of neonatal meningitis is
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Escherichia coli K1
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Haemophilus influenza
E. Neisseria meningitidis
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
Which of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis?
A. causative organisms are Naegleria fowleri and Acanthamoeba
B. infections of both the brain and meninges
C. causative organisms are viruses
D. modes of transmission are direct contact and swimming in warm fresh water
E. treatment for primary amoebic meningoencephalitis is mostly ineffective
C. causative organisms are viruses
Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involves
A. fever, headache, and rash
B. coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases
C. myalgia and orbital pain
D. muscle aches and joint stiffness
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a
A. bacteria
B. protozoan
C. virus
D. helminth
E. All of the choices are correct
C. virus
The best defense against arborviruses is
A. prophylactic rifampin
B. vector control
C. vaccination
D. prompt treatment with acyclovir
E. All of the choices are correct
B. vector control
Which of the following has the highest mortality rate?
A. western equine encephalitis
B. St. Louis encephalitis
C. California encephalitis
D. Eastern equine encephalitis
E. West Nile encephalitis
D. Eastern equine encephalitis
Which organism is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii?
A. cat
B. dog
C. mouse
D. mosquito
E. raccoon
A. cat
Toxoplasmosis prevention includes
A. vaccination of humans
B. vaccination of cats
C. hygienic precautions
D. vector control
E. All of the choices are correct
C. hygienic precautions
Spongiform encephalopathies are
A. associated with abnormal, transmissible protein in the brain
B. chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system
C. caused by prions
D. Creutzfeld-Jacob disease, kuru and gertsmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which of the following is not a prion disease?
A. scrapie
B. Creutafeldt- Jacob disease
C. bovine spongiform encephalopathy
D. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
E. All of the choices are correct
D. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Patients with Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease live
A. less than one year post diagnosis
B. 1 to 5 years post diagnosis
C. 10 to 20 years post diagnosis
D. 10 to 20 years post diagnosis
E. greater than 25 years post diagnosis
A. less than one year post diagnosis
Which in incorrect about rabies?
A. is a zoonotic disease
B. wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs
C. transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation
D. average incubation in human is one week
E. symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis
D. average incubation in human is one week
Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes
A. debridement
B. washing bite with a soap or detergent
C. infusing the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG)
D. postexposure vaccination with inactive vaccine
E. All of the choices are correct
C. infusing the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG)
All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except
A. summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing
B. transmitted primarily by fecal- contaminated water.
C. can e asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea
D. if virus enters the central nervous system motor. neurons can be infected and destroyed
E. caused by enterovirus
A. summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing
Polio virus initially multiplies in the
A. liver
B. CNS
C. oropharynx
D. nasal mucosa
E. None of the choices are correct
C. oropharynx
In paralytic polio, what structures are damaged?
A. peripheral nerves
B. diaphragm
C. anterior horn cells
D.sensory nerves
E. brain stem
B. diaphragm
The preferred preventative measure for polio in the United States is
A. inactive vaccine developed by Jonas Salk
B. oral, active vaccine developed by Jonas Salk
C. inactive vaccine developed by Albert Sabin
D. oral, active vaccine developed by Albert Sabin
A. inactive vaccine developed by Jonas Salk
Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal contraction is a characteristic of
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium tetani
E. All of the choices are correct
D. Clostridium tetani
The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is
A. gastrointestinal anthrax
B. bacillus cereus intoxication
C. botulism
D. clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis
E. All of the choices are correct
C. botulism
Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium tetani
E. All of the choices are correct
A. Clostridium botulinum
Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and foodborne botulism?
A. occurs when spore-contaminated soil enters deep wounds
B. caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen
C. exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release
D. nausea and diarrhea are symptoms
E. treatment involves antitoxin therapy
E. treatment involves antitoxin therapy
Tetanus differs from botulism in that
A. tetanus results in flaccid paralysis while botulism paralysis is rigid
B. tetanus results from an exotoxin; botulism from an endotoxin
C. there is a vaccine from botulism, but not for tetanus
D. muscles cannot relax in tetanus; muscles cannot contract in botulism
E. All of the choices are correct
D. muscles cannot relax in tetanus; muscles cannot contract in botulism
Which is the exotoxin of botulism?
A. hemolysin
B. tetanospam
C. peroxidases
D. factor V
E. botulinum
E. botulinum
The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the
A. epicardium
B. myocardium
C. endocardium
D. pericardium
E. ectocardium
D. pericardium
The presence of viruses in the blood is called
A. viremia
B. fungemia
C. hemovirus
D. bacteremia
E. septicemia
A. viremia
_______ occurs when bacteria flourish and grow in the blood steam.
A. viremia
B. fungemia
C. hemovirus
D. bacteremia
E. septicemia
E. septicemia
All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis except
A. occurs in patients that have prior heart damage
B. caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue
C. oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood
D. bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in a vegetation
E. signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli
B. caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue
The common causative agent of acute endocarditis is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Neisseria gonorrhaeae
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Most cases of septicemia are caused by
A. fungi
B. viruses
C. prions
D. bacteria
E. protozoans
D. bacteria
Which of the following is not true of septicemia?
A. fever and shaking chills
B. respiratory acidosis
C. endotoxic shock
D. parental or endogenous transfer
E. drop in blood pressure
B. respiratory acidosis
Yersinia pestis
A. was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent
B. has humans as an endemic reservoir
C. does not respond to antimicrobial drugs
D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector
E. All of the choices are correct
D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector
All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except
A. transmitted by human feces
B. caused by Yersinia pestis
C. patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes
D. patient has a fever, headache, nausea, and weakness
E. can progress to a septicemia
A. transmitted by human feces
Plague includes
A. septicemic form; called Black Death
B. bubonic form; buboes develop
C. pneumonic form; sputum highly contagious
D. disease control; control of rodent population
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Bubonic plague is transmitted by
A. mosquitos
B. flies
C. animal bites
D. sexual contact
E. fleas
E. fleas
The causative agent of Lyme disease is
A. Ixodes scapularis
B. Borrelia hermsii
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Ixodes pacificus
E. Leptospira interrogans
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with
A. plague
B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
C. Q fever
D. Lyme disease
E. yellow fever
D. Lyme disease
The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with
A. Lyme disease
B. yellow fever
C. Q fever
D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
E. plague
A. Lyme disease
Lyme disease involves
A. early symptoms of fever, headache, and stiff neck
B. crippling polyarthritis, and cardiovascular and neurological problems
C. people having contact with ticks
D. treatment with antimicrobials
E. All of the following are correct
E. All of the following are correct
Lyme disease is transmitted by
A. flies
B. droplets
C. lice
D. fleas
E. ticks
E. ticks
Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include
A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa
B. fever and pocks on skin
C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly
D.fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis
E. None of the choices are correct
C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly
Which of the following is hemorrhagic fever?
A. yellow fever
B. trench fever
C. Q fever
D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
E. cat-scratch fever
A. yellow fever
Yellow fever and dengue fever are
A. caused by arboviruses
B. caused by viruses that disrupt capillaries and blood clotting
C. zoonoses
D. transmitted by a mosquito vector
E. All of the choices are correct
D. transmitted by a mosquito vector
Which type of hemorrhagic fever is also known as "breakbone fever" because of the severe pain in bones?
A. Lassa fever
B. Ebola
C. Marburg
D. dengue fever
E. yellow fever
D. dengue fever
Brucellosis is
A. a zoonosis
B. seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain, and weakness
C. also known as undulant fever
D. an occupational illness of people that work with animals
E. All of the choices are correct
C. also known as undulant fever
Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent
A. tularemia
B. plague
C. endocarditis
D. brucellosis
E. mononucleosis
D. brucellosis
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
A. is seen in highest numbers along the west coast
B. is transmitted by Ixodes ticks
C. symptoms include fever, headache, and rash
D. never has a severe complications
E. All of the choices are correct
C. symptoms include fever, headache, and rash
The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in malaria patient are
A. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss
B. fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain
C. urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge
D. chills, fever, and sweating
E. sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes
D. chills, fever, and sweating
The cyclic bouts of fever and chills in malaria are caused by
A. liver cell lysis
B. white blood cell lysis
C. red blood cell lysis
D. neurological involvement
E. None of the choices are correct
C. red blood cell lysis
Marlaria may be prevents by
A. using bed nets sprayed with insecticide
B. eliminating standing water
C. taking prophylactic drugs
D. decreasing the mosquito population
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
The causative organism of malaria is a
A. bacterium
B. virus
C. fungus
D. protozoan
E. prion
D. protozoan
Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except
A. capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors
B. a one-time vaccine provides lifelong immunity
C. reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil
D. gram-positive bacillus
E. spore former
B. a one-time vaccine provides lifelong immunity
Anthrax is
A. a zoonosis
B. transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion
C. a disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia
D. only seen sporadically in United States
E. All of the choices are correct
B. transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion
The preferred treatment for anthrax is
A. penicillin
B. ciprofloxacin
C. quinine
D. doxycycline
E. chloroquine
B. ciprofloxacin
What material in skin cells provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entry?
A. lysozyme
B. keratin
C. sweat
D. sebum
E. salt
B. keratin
The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scaled skin syndrome is
A. enterotoxin
B. hemolysin
C. toxic shock syndrome toxin
D. exfoliative toxin
E. erythrogenic toxin
D. exfoliative toxin
Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?
A. pulmonary
B. gastrointestinal
C. cutaneous
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
C. cutaneous
A common cardiovascular/ lymph system disease in AIDS patients is
A. acute endocarditis
B. Burkitt's lymphoma
C. herpes simplex virus
D. ehrlichioses
E. brucellosis
B. Burkitt's lymphoma
Retroviruses have the following characteristics except
A. glycoprotein spikes
B. DNA genome
C. enveloped
D. reverse transcriptase
E. viral genes integrate into the host genome
B. DNA genome
All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except they
A. have an immunodeficiency
B. have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/ mm3 of blood
C. get repeated, life- threatening opportunistic infections
D. can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders
E. have the highest number of cases worldwide in the United States
E. have the highest number of cases worldwide in the United States
Documented transmission of HIV involves
A. mosquitoes
B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products
C. respiratory droplets
D. contaminated food
E. All of the choices are correct
B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products
Which drugs interfere with the action of n HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?
A. reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B. protease inhibitors
C. fusion inhibitors
D. integrase inhibitors
E. All of the following
B. protease inhibitors
Which new class of drugs will interdere with docking onto host cells?
A. reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B. protease inhibitors
C. fusion inhibitors
D. integrase inhibitors
E. All of the following
C. fusion inhibitors
A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is
A. Leukemia
B. Hodgkin's lymphoma
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
D. melanoma
E. myeloma
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
What features of the respiratory system protect us from infection?
A. nasal hairs
B. cilia
C. mucus
D. macrophages
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which antibody is concentrated in respiratory tract?
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
E. All of choices are correct
A. IgA
Normal biota of the lower respiratory tract include
A. Corynebacterium
B. Candida albicans
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Staphlococcus aureus
E. None of the above are correct
E. None of the above are correct
The most common type of virus leading to rhinitis is
A. coronavirus
B. adenovirus
C. rhinovirus
D. herpes simplex virus
E. retrovirus
C. rhinovirus
Infection travels to the middle ear by way of the
A. auditory canal
B. sinuses
C. nasal cavity
D. eustachian (auditory) tubes
E. subarachnoid space
D. eustachian (auditory) tubes
The most common causative agent of otitis media is
A. Aspergillus fumigatus
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Candida albicans
D. Corynebacterium
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcal pharyngistis involves all of following except
A. a purulent exudate over the tonsils
B. it can lead to scarlet fever if it an erythrogenic toxin- producing strain
C. it can lead serious sequelae
D. it is viral in origin
E. it causes difficulty in swallowing and fever
D. it is viral in origin
The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to
A. enterotoxins
B. hemolysins
C. toxic shock syndrome toxin
D. exfoliative toxin
E. erythrogenic rash
E. erythrogenic rash
Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except
A. scarlet fever
B. pertussis
C. rheumatic fever
D. glomerulonephritis
E. erythrogenic rash
B. pertussis
Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pyogenes?
A. group A streptococcus
B. gram-negative
C. forms spores
D. sensitive to bacitracin
E. beta- hemolytic
C. forms spores
Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in
A. diphtheria
B. pharyngitis
C. tuberculosis
D. pertussis
E. SARS
A. diphtheria
Which of the following pertains to diphtheria?
A. results in meningitis
B. symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea
C. can be transmitted from mother's birth canal to neonate
D. prevented by the DTaP immunization
E. All of the choices are correct
D. prevented by the DTaP immunization
The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheria that causes serious systemic effects is
A. its capsules
B. metachromatic granules
C. an exotoxin
D. endospores
E. an endotoxin
C. an exotoxin
Pertussis has the following characteristics except
A. the disease progresses through several distinct stages
B. the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops"
C. the early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing
D. DTaP immunization will prevent it
E. transmission is by droplet contact
B. the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops"
The causative organism of whooping cough is
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. Cornyebacterium diphtheriae
E. Cornyebacterium diphtheriae
Respiratory syncytial virus
A. causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger
B. is highly contagious
C. is transmitted through droplet contact and fomite contamination
D. can not be prevented by vaccination at this time
A. All of the choices are correct
A. All of the choices are correct
The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is
A. catalase
B. reverse transcriptase
C. hyaluronidase
D. neuraminidase
E. kinase
D. neuraminidase
Symptoms of influenza include
A. nasal discharge, mild fever, and absence of cough
B. fever, diarrhea, and vomiting
C. fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, and nasal discharge
D. fever, sore throat, rash, and cough
E. fever and pneumonia
C. fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, and nasal discharge
Influenza vaccines include all the following except
A. an inactivated dead virus
B. the incorporation of usually three different strains
C. an attenuated nasal drops vaccine
D. the ability to provide lifelong immunity
E. an overall effectiveness of 70%-90%
D. the ability to provide lifelong immunity
Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?
A. all species are human pathogens
B. cell walls have waxy lipids
C. they are acid fast
D. usually have a slow growth rate
E. they are long, slender rods
A. all species are human pathogens
All of the following pertain to tuberculosis except
A. live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life
B. symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats
C. lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB
D. the BCG vaccine is used in other countries
E. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis
E. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis
Tuberculin skin testing
A. injects PPD intradermally
B. uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. will be positive if person has had previous exposure to TB
D. will be positive if the person has active TB
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves a/an
A. chest X ray
B. acid fast stain of sputum
C. sputum culture
D. tuberculin skin test
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which of the following causes a non-communicable pulmonary infection that resembles
A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
B. Mycobacterium kansasii
C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex
E. Mycobacterium marinum
A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
The tubercles formed in primary tuberculosis are caused by an influx of
A. neutrophils
B. basophils
C. mononuclear leukocytes
D. polymorphonuclear leukocytes
E. antibodies
C. mononuclear leukocytes
Extrapulmonary TB ca involve the
A. kidneys
B. long bones
C. spine
D. brain
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
When the centers of tubercles break down into ______ lesions, they gradually heal by calcification that replaces normal lung tissue
A. primary
B. secondary
C. necrotic caseous
D. granuloma
E. tertiary
C. necrotic caseous
Streptococcus pneumoniae is
A. alpha-hemolytic on blood sugar
B. often referred to as pneumococcus
C. a gram-negative diplococcus with a capsule
D. most likely to cause infection in older adults
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters?
A. legionellosis
B. pertussis
C. brucellosis
D. plague
E. traveler's diarrhea
A. legionellosis
Hantavirus has all of the following characteristics except
A. a reservoir is human carriers
B. it is a zoonotic infection
C. the symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress
D. it is transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta
E. the first US outbreak occurred in 1993 in the southwest
A. a reservoir is human carriers
This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients:
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Candida albicans
C. Malassezia furfur
D. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
E. None of the choices are correct
D. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
Drug resistant strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae are now treated with
A. penicillin v
B. eryrthromycin
C. tetracyline
D. vancomycin
E. cefotaxime
E. cefotaxime
Which organ of the GI tract has large commensal population of microorganisms?
A. liver
B. salivary glands
C. pancreas
D. large intestine
E. small intestine
D. large intestine
The causative organism for mumps is
A. Paramyxovirus
B. Morbillivirus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Corynebacterium
E. Vibrio
A. Paramyxovirus
The virulence factor for mumps is
A. inflammation
B. acid production
C. endotoxin
D. enterotoxin
E. spike-induced syncytium
E. spike-induced syncytium
Orchitis and epididymitis are seen in young adult males as a complication of
A. croup
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. measles (rubeola)
E. rubella
B. mumps
Helicobacter pylori
A. gastritis
B. duodenal ulcers
C. stomach ulcers
D. increased risk for stomach cancer
E. All of the following are correct
A. gastritis
Which of the following is mismatched?
A. H antigen-flagellar
B. K antigen- capsule
C. O antigen- cell wall
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
D. All of the choices are correct
Which is incorrect about shigellosis?
A. outbreaks have occurred in day care centers
B. watery diarrhea with bloody,mucoid stools and abdominal cramps.
C, frequently involve septicemia
D. human carriers cause fecal transmission
E. also called dysentery
C, frequently involve septicemia
E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following except it
A. only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals
B. is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger
C. causes a bloody diarrhea
D. has a reservoir of cattle intestines
E. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure
A. only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals
Which of the following statements describes the main virulence factor of E. coli 0157:H7?
A. an pathogen- encoded exotoxin
B. a bacteriophage- encoded exotoxin
C. an endotoxin used for host attachment
D. a coagulase for host clotting
E. a hemolysin for red blood cell destruction
B. a bacteriophage- encoded exotoxin
Escherichia coli infections
A. are often transmitted by fecal- contaminated water and food
B. have been due to undercooked meat
C.involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea
D. can be self- limiting with the only treatment being rehydration
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea in the United States is
A. E. coli
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. Campylobacter
E. Yersinia
D. Campylobacter
`
Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium tetani
E. All of the choices are correct
C. Clostridium difficile
All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except it
A. is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies
B. is a colitis that is a superinfection
C. often has an endogenous source
D. is associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad-spectrum antimicrobials
E. is the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals
A. is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies
Which is not true of Clostridium difficile?
A. a gram-positive, endospore forming rod
B. part of normal intestinal biota
C. infection precipitated by broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
D. also called pseudomembranous colitis
E. produces "rice-water" stools
E. produces "rice-water" stools
The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its
A. capsule
B. neurotoxin
C. invasive enzymes
D. enterotoxin
E. All of the choices are correct
D. enterotoxin
Cholera symptoms are
A. copious watery diarrhea
B. loss of blood volume
C. acidosis, sunken eyes, and thirst
D. hypotension , tachycardia, and shock
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is
A. water and electrolyte replacement
B. antimicrobials
C. antitoxin
D. surgery
E. None of the choices are correct
A. water and electrolyte replacement
"Rice-water stools" are associated with disease caused by which organism?
A. cryptosporidium
B. rotavirus
C. adenovirus
D. norovirus
E. astrovirus
B. rotavirus
Which of the following is not a normal causative agent of acute diarrhea with vomiting ( food poisoning)?
A. Clostridium perfringes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Bacillus cereus
E. All of the choices are correct
C. Clostridium difficile
A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin- producing strains of
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. Streptococcus agalactiae
A. Staphylococcus aureus
Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication?
A. food gets contaminated by a human carrier
B. common associated foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, and processed meats
C. after contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours
D. ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage he GI tract lining
E. symptoms come on quickly and include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
C. after contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours
All of the following can be transmitted by drinking contaminated water except
A. cryptosporidiosis
B. cyclosporiasis
C. malaria
D. campylobacter
E. giardiasis
C. malaria
Giardiasis involves
A. a protozoan that does not form cysts
B. infection by a bacteria
C. symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea
D. fimbriae for adherence
E. All of the following are correct
C. symptoms of abdominal pain, flatulence, and diarrhea
Hepatitis B virus
A. is principally transmitted by blood
B. transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse
C. is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers
D. has many chronic carriers
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which is incorrect about hepatitis A infection?
A transmitted by oral-fecal route
B. had flu- like symptoms with discomfort near the liver and darkened urine
C. predisposes a person for liver cancer
D. immunoglobulin therapy helps decrease the severity
E. HAVRAX is an inactivated vaccine for prevention
C. predisposes a person for liver cancer
The integument includes all of the following except
A. skin
B. hair
C. nails
D. sweat glades
E. surface capillaries
E. surface capillaries
Blood vessels are found in the
A. stratum corneum
B. dermis
C. stratum basale
D. subcutaneous layer
E. dermis and subcutaneous layer
E. dermis and subcutaneous layer
Blisters are
A. confined to epidermis
B. originate in the dermis
C. originate in the subcutaneous layer
D. result from a separation of epidermis from dermis
E. None of the choices are correct
D. result from a separation of epidermis from dermis
Protective features of the skin include all but
A. keratinized surface
B.resident biota
C. antimicrobial peptides
D. high pH
E. lysozyme
D. high pH
What enzyme is not found in Staphylococcus epidermis but is found in Staphylococcus aureus?
A. peroxidase
B. catalase
C. lysozyme
D. coagulase
E. lipase
D. coagulase
The causative agent of acne is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Micrococcus luteus
C. Propionibacterium acnes
D. Streptococcus epidermidis
E. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Propionibacterium acnes
The enzyme that coagulates plasma is
A. catalase
B. coagulase
C. hyaluronidase
D. staphylokinase
E. kinase
B. coagulase
Necrotizing fasciitis is
A. also called impetigo
B. occurs in response to superantigens
C. associated with strains of Neisseria gonorrheae producing destructive enzymes and toxins
D. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis
E. All of the choices are correct
D. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis
Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo?
A. fomites
B. direct contact
C. mechanical vectors
D. blood
E. body fluids
B. direct contact
Impetigo is caused by
A. Propionibacterium acnes
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
E. both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pyogenes binds to plasminogen and then secrets _______ that creates plasmin that degrades tissue.
A. streptokinase
B. M protein
C. exfoliative toxin A
D. hyaluronidase
E. coagulase
A. streptokinase
MRSAs are Staphylococcus aureus strains that are
A. resistant to mupirocin
B. responsive to mupirocin
C. resistant to penicillin derivatives
D. responsive to penicillin derivatives
E. related to Streptococcus pyogenes
C. resistant to penicillin derivatives
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except
A. meningitis
B. furuncles and carbuncles
C. impetigo
D. scalded skin syndrome
E. acne
E. acne
All of the following pertain to Streptococcus pyogenes except
A. is often from an endogenous source
B. secretes streptokinase
C. causes impetigo
D. coats itself with host proteins
E. causes gas gangrene
E. causes gas gangrene
Steptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following except
A. necrotizing fasciitis
B. erysipelas
C. impetigo
D. scarlet fever
E. scalded skin syndrome
E. scalded skin syndrome
Which of the following is not true of cellulitis?
A. caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes
B. occurs in epidermis
C. causes pain, tenderness, swelling, and warmth
D. lymphangitis may occur
E. treated with cephalexin
B. occurs in epidermis
The smallpox vaccine uses the ______ virus.
A. small pox
B. herpes simplex
C. vaccinia
D. herpes virus 6
E. None of choices is correct
C. vaccinia
Chickenpox
A. is transmitted by droplet contact
B. lesion distribution is centripetal
C. has an incubation of 10 to 20 days
D. has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Varicella-zoster virus (human herpesvirus-3)
A. uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry
B. becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes
C. has humans as its reservoir
D. causes chickenpox and shingles
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with
A. herpes labialis
B. shingles
C. chickenpox
D. infectious mononucleosis
E. herpes keratitis
C. chickenpox
Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with
A. croup
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. measles (rubeola)
E. rubella
D. measles (rubeola)
Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization?
A. contains attenuated virus
B. contains toxoids
C. is given in early childhood
D. protects against three different viral diseases
E. None of the choices are correct
B. contains toxoids
All of the following pertain to measles (rubeola) except
A. transmitted by direct contact with the rash
B. humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen
C. secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis can occur
D. involves a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
E. dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis are symptoms
A. transmitted by direct contact with the rash
Measles is also known as
A. rubella
B. shingles
C. rubeola
D. fifth disease
E. varicella
C. rubeola
This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage:
A. croup
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. measles (rubeola)
E. rubella
E. rubella
Rubella is
A. caused by the measles virus ( Morbillivirus)
B. a very contagious disease
C. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects.
D. seen as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia
E. All of the choices are correct
C. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects.
Fifth disease
A. is caused by Parvovirus B19
B. is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks
C. is not treatable at this time with vaccination
D. has a maculopapular rash that lasts for days to weeks
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which is incorrect about warts?
A. caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV)
B. are transmitted by direct contact or fomites
C. include deep plantar warts on soles of the feet
D. are frequently cancerous
E. freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal
D. are frequently cancerous
Which of the following provides the eye with its best defense against microorganisms?
A. conjunctiva
B. eyelids
C. lymphocytes
D. tears
E. eyelashes
D. tears
Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?
A. transmitted through both direct and indirect contact
B. can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. treatment is with a broad-spectrum tropical antibiotic
D. has a clear discharge
E. can be caused by Straphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. has a clear discharge
Which is true of viral conjunctivitis?
A. caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. has mucopurulent discharge
C. caused by adenoviruses
D. must be treated with tropical and oral antibiotics
E. caused by Moraxella
C. caused by adenoviruses
Keratitis is usually caused by
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. herpes simplex
D. neisseria gonorrhaeae
E. All of the choices are correct
C. herpes simplex
What is the only way to prevent conjunctivitis?
A. wear insect repellent
B. good hygiene
C. trifluridine or acyclovir treatment
D. ivermectin treatment
E. prophylactic antibiotics
B. good hygiene
Cerebrospinal fluid is found in
A. pia mater
B. dura mater
C. subarachnoid space
D. arachnoid mater
E. All of the choices are correct
C. subarachnoid space
Place the following in order from skull to brain: 1) subaraschnoid space 2) arachnoid mater 3) dura mater 4) pia mater.
A. subarachnoid space, arachnoid space, dura mater, pia mater
B. dura mater, archnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater
C. dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater, subarachnoid space
D. arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater, pia mater
E. pia mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater
B. dura mater, archnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater
The concept of "immunologically privileged" explains why the CNS
A. has a greater immune response that the rest of the body
B. has a reduced immune response compared to the est of the body
C. has a completely different set of immune responses
D. has more MHC markers that other tissues
E. All of the choices are correct
B. has a reduced immune response compared to the est of the body
Which type of neuroglia has phagocyctic capabilities in the CNS?
A. astrocytes
B. schwann cells
C. macrophages
D. microglial cells
E. neurons
D. microglial cells
What brain defenses restricts substances from entering the brain by the vascular system?
A. meninges
B. blood-brain barrier
C. macrophages
D. microglia
E. cranium
B. blood-brain barrier
The normal biota of the CNS consists of
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. herpes simplex I
C. herpes simplex II
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
E. The CNS has no normal biota
E. The CNS has no normal biota
Meningococcemia is
A. best treated with penicillin G
B. associated with vascular collapse, hemorrhage, and petechiae
C. strated from a nasopharyngeal infection
D. caused by a gram-negative diplococcus
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except
A. virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease.
B. causes a serious meningitis
C. reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers
D. more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks
E. common cause of bacterial pneumonia
E. common cause of bacterial pneumonia
Which of the following is a sign of meningitis?
A. headache
B. stiff neck
C. white blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid
D. fever
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Meningococci initially colonize the
A. lacrimal ducts
B. oral mucosa
C. nasopharynx
D. eustachian tube
E. All of the choices are correct
C. nasopharynx
Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by
A. casual contact
B. close contact
C. intimate contact
D. indirect contact
E. fomites
B. close contact
Treatment of Neisseria meningitidis consists of
A. vancomycin
B. penicillin G orally
C. penicillin G intravenously
D. rifampin
E. tetracycline
C. penicillin G intravenously
The virulence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is associated with its
A. fimbriae
B. neurotoxin
C. enterotoxin
D. capsule
E. None of the choices is correct
D. capsule
Prophylactic rifampin is indicated for individuals in close contact with patients infected by
A. neisseria menigitidis
B. listeria monocytogenes
C. crytococcus neoformans
D. coccidiodes immitis
E. streptococcus agalactiae
A. neisseria menigitidis
Which organism is common cause of meningitis is AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Crytococcus neoformans
E. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. Crytococcus neoformans
Cryptococcus neoformans is a
A. virus
B. bacteria
C. prion
D. fungus
E. helminth
D. fungus
Although many viruses can cause meningitis, the most common viral is
A. measles
B. cytomegalovirus
C. arbovirus
D. enterovirus
E. arenavirus
D. enterovirus
Neonatal meningitis is most commonly transmitted by
A. breast feeding
B. hospital personnel
C. transplacental infection
D. exposure in birth canal
E. exposure from other infants
D. exposure in birth canal
The organism responsible for majority of neonatal meningitis is
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Escherichia coli K1
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Haemophilus influenza
E. Neisseria meningitidis
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
Which of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis?
A. causative organisms are Naegleria fowleri and Acanthamoeba
B. infections of both the brain and meninges
C. causative organisms are viruses
D. modes of transmission are direct contact and swimming in warm fresh water
E. treatment for primary amoebic meningoencephalitis is mostly ineffective
C. causative organisms are viruses
Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involves
A. fever, headache, and rash
B. coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases
C. myalgia and orbital pain
D. muscle aches and joint stiffness
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a
A. bacteria
B. protozoan
C. virus
D. helminth
E. All of the choices are correct
C. virus
The best defense against arborviruses is
A. prophylactic rifampin
B. vector control
C. vaccination
D. prompt treatment with acyclovir
E. All of the choices are correct
B. vector control
Which of the following has the highest mortality rate?
A. western equine encephalitis
B. St. Louis encephalitis
C. California encephalitis
D. Eastern equine encephalitis
E. West Nile encephalitis
D. Eastern equine encephalitis
Which organism is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii?
A. cat
B. dog
C. mouse
D. mosquito
E. raccoon
A. cat
Toxoplasmosis prevention includes
A. vaccination of humans
B. vaccination of cats
C. hygienic precautions
D. vector control
E. All of the choices are correct
C. hygienic precautions
Spongiform encephalopathies are
A. associated with abnormal, transmissible protein in the brain
B. chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system
C. caused by prions
D. Creutzfeld-Jacob disease, kuru and gertsmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which of the following is not a prion disease?
A. scrapie
B. Creutafeldt- Jacob disease
C. bovine spongiform encephalopathy
D. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
E. All of the choices are correct
D. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Patients with Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease live
A. less than one year post diagnosis
B. 1 to 5 years post diagnosis
C. 10 to 20 years post diagnosis
D. 10 to 20 years post diagnosis
E. greater than 25 years post diagnosis
A. less than one year post diagnosis
Which in incorrect about rabies?
A. is a zoonotic disease
B. wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs
C. transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation
D. average incubation in human is one week
E. symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis
D. average incubation in human is one week
Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes
A. debridement
B. washing bite with a soap or detergent
C. infusing the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG)
D. postexposure vaccination with inactive vaccine
E. All of the choices are correct
C. infusing the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG)
All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except
A. summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing
B. transmitted primarily by fecal- contaminated water.
C. can e asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea
D. if virus enters the central nervous system motor. neurons can be infected and destroyed
E. caused by enterovirus
A. summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing
Polio virus initially multiplies in the
A. liver
B. CNS
C. oropharynx
D. nasal mucosa
E. None of the choices are correct
C. oropharynx
In paralytic polio, what structures are damaged?
A. peripheral nerves
B. diaphragm
C. anterior horn cells
D.sensory nerves
E. brain stem
B. diaphragm
The preferred preventative measure for polio in the United States is
A. inactive vaccine developed by Jonas Salk
B. oral, active vaccine developed by Jonas Salk
C. inactive vaccine developed by Albert Sabin
D. oral, active vaccine developed by Albert Sabin
A. inactive vaccine developed by Jonas Salk
Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal contraction is a characteristic of
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium tetani
E. All of the choices are correct
D. Clostridium tetani
The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is
A. gastrointestinal anthrax
B. bacillus cereus intoxication
C. botulism
D. clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis
E. All of the choices are correct
C. botulism
Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium tetani
E. All of the choices are correct
A. Clostridium botulinum
Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and foodborne botulism?
A. occurs when spore-contaminated soil enters deep wounds
B. caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen
C. exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release
D. nausea and diarrhea are symptoms
E. treatment involves antitoxin therapy
E. treatment involves antitoxin therapy
Tetanus differs from botulism in that
A. tetanus results in flaccid paralysis while botulism paralysis is rigid
B. tetanus results from an exotoxin; botulism from an endotoxin
C. there is a vaccine from botulism, but not for tetanus
D. muscles cannot relax in tetanus; muscles cannot contract in botulism
E. All of the choices are correct
D. muscles cannot relax in tetanus; muscles cannot contract in botulism
Which is the exotoxin of botulism?
A. hemolysin
B. tetanospam
C. peroxidases
D. factor V
E. botulinum
E. botulinum
The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the
A. epicardium
B. myocardium
C. endocardium
D. pericardium
E. ectocardium
D. pericardium
The presence of viruses in the blood is called
A. viremia
B. fungemia
C. hemovirus
D. bacteremia
E. septicemia
A. viremia
_______ occurs when bacteria flourish and grow in the blood steam.
A. viremia
B. fungemia
C. hemovirus
D. bacteremia
E. septicemia
E. septicemia
All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis except
A. occurs in patients that have prior heart damage
B. caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue
C. oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood
D. bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in a vegetation
E. signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli
B. caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue
The common causative agent of acute endocarditis is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Neisseria gonorrhaeae
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Most cases of septicemia are caused by
A. fungi
B. viruses
C. prions
D. bacteria
E. protozoans
D. bacteria
Which of the following is not true of septicemia?
A. fever and shaking chills
B. respiratory acidosis
C. endotoxic shock
D. parental or endogenous transfer
E. drop in blood pressure
B. respiratory acidosis
Yersinia pestis
A. was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent
B. has humans as an endemic reservoir
C. does not respond to antimicrobial drugs
D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector
E. All of the choices are correct
D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector
All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except
A. transmitted by human feces
B. caused by Yersinia pestis
C. patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes
D. patient has a fever, headache, nausea, and weakness
E. can progress to a septicemia
A. transmitted by human feces
Plague includes
A. septicemic form; called Black Death
B. bubonic form; buboes develop
C. pneumonic form; sputum highly contagious
D. disease control; control of rodent population
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
The integument includes all of the following except
A. skin
B. hair
C. nails
D. sweat glades
E. surface capillaries
E. surface capillaries
Blood vessels are found in the
A. stratum corneum
B. dermis
C. stratum basale
D. subcutaneous layer
E. dermis and subcutaneous layer
E. dermis and subcutaneous layer
Blisters are
A. confined to epidermis
B. originate in the dermis
C. originate in the subcutaneous layer
D. result from a separation of epidermis from dermis
E. None of the choices are correct
D. result from a separation of epidermis from dermis
Protective features of the skin include all but
A. keratinized surface
B.resident biota
C. antimicrobial peptides
D. high pH
E. lysozyme
D. high pH
What enzyme is not found in Staphylococcus epidermis but is found in Staphylococcus aureus?
A. peroxidase
B. catalase
C. lysozyme
D. coagulase
E. lipase
D. coagulase
The causative agent of acne is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Micrococcus luteus
C. Propionibacterium acnes
D. Streptococcus epidermidis
E. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Propionibacterium acnes
The enzyme that coagulates plasma is
A. catalase
B. coagulase
C. hyaluronidase
D. staphylokinase
E. kinase
B. coagulase
Necrotizing fasciitis is
A. also called impetigo
B. occurs in response to superantigens
C. associated with strains of Neisseria gonorrheae producing destructive enzymes and toxins
D. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis
E. All of the choices are correct
D. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis
Which of the following is the most common form of microbe transmission in impetigo?
A. fomites
B. direct contact
C. mechanical vectors
D. blood
E. body fluids
B. direct contact
Impetigo is caused by
A. Propionibacterium acnes
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
E. both Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes
Streptococcus pyogenes binds to plasminogen and then secrets _______ that creates plasmin that degrades tissue.
A. streptokinase
B. M protein
C. exfoliative toxin A
D. hyaluronidase
E. coagulase
A. streptokinase
MRSAs are Staphylococcus aureus strains that are
A. resistant to mupirocin
B. responsive to mupirocin
C. resistant to penicillin derivatives
D. responsive to penicillin derivatives
E. related to Streptococcus pyogenes
C. resistant to penicillin derivatives
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except
A. meningitis
B. furuncles and carbuncles
C. impetigo
D. scalded skin syndrome
E. acne
E. acne
All of the following pertain to Streptococcus pyogenes except
A. is often from an endogenous source
B. secretes streptokinase
C. causes impetigo
D. coats itself with host proteins
E. causes gas gangrene
E. causes gas gangrene
Steptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following except
A. necrotizing fasciitis
B. erysipelas
C. impetigo
D. scarlet fever
E. scalded skin syndrome
E. scalded skin syndrome
Which of the following is not true of cellulitis?
A. caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes
B. occurs in epidermis
C. causes pain, tenderness, swelling, and warmth
D. lymphangitis may occur
E. treated with cephalexin
B. occurs in epidermis
The smallpox vaccine uses the ______ virus.
A. small pox
B. herpes simplex
C. vaccinia
D. herpes virus 6
E. None of choices is correct
C. vaccinia
Chickenpox
A. is transmitted by droplet contact
B. lesion distribution is centripetal
C. has an incubation of 10 to 20 days
D. has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops.
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Varicella-zoster virus (human herpesvirus-3)
A. uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry
B. becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes
C. has humans as its reservoir
D. causes chickenpox and shingles
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with
A. herpes labialis
B. shingles
C. chickenpox
D. infectious mononucleosis
E. herpes keratitis
C. chickenpox
Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with
A. croup
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. measles (rubeola)
E. rubella
D. measles (rubeola)
Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization?
A. contains attenuated virus
B. contains toxoids
C. is given in early childhood
D. protects against three different viral diseases
E. None of the choices are correct
B. contains toxoids
All of the following pertain to measles (rubeola) except
A. transmitted by direct contact with the rash
B. humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen
C. secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis can occur
D. involves a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
E. dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis are symptoms
A. transmitted by direct contact with the rash
Measles is also known as
A. rubella
B. shingles
C. rubeola
D. fifth disease
E. varicella
C. rubeola
This febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage:
A. croup
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. measles (rubeola)
E. rubella
E. rubella
Rubella is
A. caused by the measles virus ( Morbillivirus)
B. a very contagious disease
C. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects.
D. seen as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia
E. All of the choices are correct
C. associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects.
Fifth disease
A. is caused by Parvovirus B19
B. is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks
C. is not treatable at this time with vaccination
D. has a maculopapular rash that lasts for days to weeks
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which is incorrect about warts?
A. caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV)
B. are transmitted by direct contact or fomites
C. include deep plantar warts on soles of the feet
D. are frequently cancerous
E. freezing and laser surgery can be used for removal
D. are frequently cancerous
Which of the following provides the eye with its best defense against microorganisms?
A. conjunctiva
B. eyelids
C. lymphocytes
D. tears
E. eyelashes
D. tears
Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis?
A. transmitted through both direct and indirect contact
B. can be caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. treatment is with a broad-spectrum tropical antibiotic
D. has a clear discharge
E. can be caused by Straphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, or Neisseria gonorrhoeae
D. has a clear discharge
Which is true of viral conjunctivitis?
A. caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B. has mucopurulent discharge
C. caused by adenoviruses
D. must be treated with tropical and oral antibiotics
E. caused by Moraxella
C. caused by adenoviruses
Keratitis is usually caused by
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. herpes simplex
D. neisseria gonorrhaeae
E. All of the choices are correct
C. herpes simplex
What is the only way to prevent conjunctivitis?
A. wear insect repellent
B. good hygiene
C. trifluridine or acyclovir treatment
D. ivermectin treatment
E. prophylactic antibiotics
B. good hygiene
Cerebrospinal fluid is found in
A. pia mater
B. dura mater
C. subarachnoid space
D. arachnoid mater
E. All of the choices are correct
C. subarachnoid space
Place the following in order from skull to brain: 1) subaraschnoid space 2) arachnoid mater 3) dura mater 4) pia mater.
A. subarachnoid space, arachnoid space, dura mater, pia mater
B. dura mater, archnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater
C. dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater, subarachnoid space
D. arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater, pia mater
E. pia mater, arachnoid mater, subarachnoid space, dura mater
B. dura mater, archnoid mater, subarachnoid space, pia mater
The concept of "immunologically privileged" explains why the CNS
A. has a greater immune response that the rest of the body
B. has a reduced immune response compared to the est of the body
C. has a completely different set of immune responses
D. has more MHC markers that other tissues
E. All of the choices are correct
B. has a reduced immune response compared to the est of the body
Which type of neuroglia has phagocyctic capabilities in the CNS?
A. astrocytes
B. schwann cells
C. macrophages
D. microglial cells
E. neurons
D. microglial cells
What brain defenses restricts substances from entering the brain by the vascular system?
A. meninges
B. blood-brain barrier
C. macrophages
D. microglia
E. cranium
B. blood-brain barrier
The normal biota of the CNS consists of
A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. herpes simplex I
C. herpes simplex II
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
E. The CNS has no normal biota
E. The CNS has no normal biota
Meningococcemia is
A. best treated with penicillin G
B. associated with vascular collapse, hemorrhage, and petechiae
C. strated from a nasopharyngeal infection
D. caused by a gram-negative diplococcus
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis except
A. virulent factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease.
B. causes a serious meningitis
C. reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers
D. more easily transmitted in day care facilities, dorms, and military barracks
E. common cause of bacterial pneumonia
E. common cause of bacterial pneumonia
Which of the following is a sign of meningitis?
A. headache
B. stiff neck
C. white blood cells in cerebrospinal fluid
D. fever
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Meningococci initially colonize the
A. lacrimal ducts
B. oral mucosa
C. nasopharynx
D. eustachian tube
E. All of the choices are correct
C. nasopharynx
Neisseria meningitidis is transmitted by
A. casual contact
B. close contact
C. intimate contact
D. indirect contact
E. fomites
B. close contact
Treatment of Neisseria meningitidis consists of
A. vancomycin
B. penicillin G orally
C. penicillin G intravenously
D. rifampin
E. tetracycline
C. penicillin G intravenously
The virulence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is associated with its
A. fimbriae
B. neurotoxin
C. enterotoxin
D. capsule
E. None of the choices is correct
D. capsule
Prophylactic rifampin is indicated for individuals in close contact with patients infected by
A. neisseria menigitidis
B. listeria monocytogenes
C. crytococcus neoformans
D. coccidiodes immitis
E. streptococcus agalactiae
A. neisseria menigitidis
Which organism is common cause of meningitis is AIDS patients and can be found in bird droppings?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Neisseria meningitidis
D. Crytococcus neoformans
E. Streptococcus agalactiae
D. Crytococcus neoformans
Cryptococcus neoformans is a
A. virus
B. bacteria
C. prion
D. fungus
E. helminth
D. fungus
Although many viruses can cause meningitis, the most common viral is
A. measles
B. cytomegalovirus
C. arbovirus
D. enterovirus
E. arenavirus
D. enterovirus
Neonatal meningitis is most commonly transmitted by
A. breast feeding
B. hospital personnel
C. transplacental infection
D. exposure in birth canal
E. exposure from other infants
D. exposure in birth canal
The organism responsible for majority of neonatal meningitis is
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
B. Escherichia coli K1
C. Listeria monocytogenes
D. Haemophilus influenza
E. Neisseria meningitidis
A. Streptococcus agalactiae
Which of the following is not true of meningoencephalitis?
A. causative organisms are Naegleria fowleri and Acanthamoeba
B. infections of both the brain and meninges
C. causative organisms are viruses
D. modes of transmission are direct contact and swimming in warm fresh water
E. treatment for primary amoebic meningoencephalitis is mostly ineffective
C. causative organisms are viruses
Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involves
A. fever, headache, and rash
B. coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases
C. myalgia and orbital pain
D. muscle aches and joint stiffness
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Encephalitis is most commonly caused by a
A. bacteria
B. protozoan
C. virus
D. helminth
E. All of the choices are correct
C. virus
The best defense against arborviruses is
A. prophylactic rifampin
B. vector control
C. vaccination
D. prompt treatment with acyclovir
E. All of the choices are correct
B. vector control
Which of the following has the highest mortality rate?
A. western equine encephalitis
B. St. Louis encephalitis
C. California encephalitis
D. Eastern equine encephalitis
E. West Nile encephalitis
D. Eastern equine encephalitis
Which organism is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii?
A. cat
B. dog
C. mouse
D. mosquito
E. raccoon
A. cat
Toxoplasmosis prevention includes
A. vaccination of humans
B. vaccination of cats
C. hygienic precautions
D. vector control
E. All of the choices are correct
C. hygienic precautions
Spongiform encephalopathies are
A. associated with abnormal, transmissible protein in the brain
B. chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system
C. caused by prions
D. Creutzfeld-Jacob disease, kuru and gertsmann-Straussler-Scheinker syndrome
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which of the following is not a prion disease?
A. scrapie
B. Creutafeldt- Jacob disease
C. bovine spongiform encephalopathy
D. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
E. All of the choices are correct
D. subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Patients with Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease live
A. less than one year post diagnosis
B. 1 to 5 years post diagnosis
C. 10 to 20 years post diagnosis
D. 10 to 20 years post diagnosis
E. greater than 25 years post diagnosis
A. less than one year post diagnosis
Which in incorrect about rabies?
A. is a zoonotic disease
B. wild populations of bats, skunks, raccoons, cats, and canines are primary reservoirs
C. transmission can involve bites, scratches, and inhalation
D. average incubation in human is one week
E. symptoms include anxiety, agitation, muscle spasms, convulsions, and paralysis
D. average incubation in human is one week
Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes
A. debridement
B. washing bite with a soap or detergent
C. infusing the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG)
D. postexposure vaccination with inactive vaccine
E. All of the choices are correct
C. infusing the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG)
All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis except
A. summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing
B. transmitted primarily by fecal- contaminated water.
C. can e asymptomatic or mild with headache, sore throat, fever, and nausea
D. if virus enters the central nervous system motor. neurons can be infected and destroyed
E. caused by enterovirus
A. summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing
Polio virus initially multiplies in the
A. liver
B. CNS
C. oropharynx
D. nasal mucosa
E. None of the choices are correct
C. oropharynx
In paralytic polio, what structures are damaged?
A. peripheral nerves
B. diaphragm
C. anterior horn cells
D.sensory nerves
E. brain stem
B. diaphragm
The preferred preventative measure for polio in the United States is
A. inactive vaccine developed by Jonas Salk
B. oral, active vaccine developed by Jonas Salk
C. inactive vaccine developed by Albert Sabin
D. oral, active vaccine developed by Albert Sabin
A. inactive vaccine developed by Jonas Salk
Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal contraction is a characteristic of
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium tetani
E. All of the choices are correct
D. Clostridium tetani
The foodborne disease that involves neurotoxin is
A. gastrointestinal anthrax
B. bacillus cereus intoxication
C. botulism
D. clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis
E. All of the choices are correct
C. botulism
Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium tetani
E. All of the choices are correct
A. Clostridium botulinum
Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and foodborne botulism?
A. occurs when spore-contaminated soil enters deep wounds
B. caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen
C. exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release
D. nausea and diarrhea are symptoms
E. treatment involves antitoxin therapy
E. treatment involves antitoxin therapy
Tetanus differs from botulism in that
A. tetanus results in flaccid paralysis while botulism paralysis is rigid
B. tetanus results from an exotoxin; botulism from an endotoxin
C. there is a vaccine from botulism, but not for tetanus
D. muscles cannot relax in tetanus; muscles cannot contract in botulism
E. All of the choices are correct
D. muscles cannot relax in tetanus; muscles cannot contract in botulism
Which is the exotoxin of botulism?
A. hemolysin
B. tetanospam
C. peroxidases
D. factor V
E. botulinum
E. botulinum
The fibrous sac that encloses the heart is the
A. epicardium
B. myocardium
C. endocardium
D. pericardium
E. ectocardium
D. pericardium
The presence of viruses in the blood is called
A. viremia
B. fungemia
C. hemovirus
D. bacteremia
E. septicemia
A. viremia
_______ occurs when bacteria flourish and grow in the blood steam.
A. viremia
B. fungemia
C. hemovirus
D. bacteremia
E. septicemia
E. septicemia
All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis except
A. occurs in patients that have prior heart damage
B. caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue
C. oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood
D. bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in a vegetation
E. signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli
B. caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue
The common causative agent of acute endocarditis is
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Neisseria gonorrhaeae
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Most cases of septicemia are caused by
A. fungi
B. viruses
C. prions
D. bacteria
E. protozoans
D. bacteria
Which of the following is not true of septicemia?
A. fever and shaking chills
B. respiratory acidosis
C. endotoxic shock
D. parental or endogenous transfer
E. drop in blood pressure
B. respiratory acidosis
Yersinia pestis
A. was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent
B. has humans as an endemic reservoir
C. does not respond to antimicrobial drugs
D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector
E. All of the choices are correct
D. is usually transmitted by a flea vector
All of the following are associated with bubonic plague except
A. transmitted by human feces
B. caused by Yersinia pestis
C. patient often has enlarged inguinal lymph nodes
D. patient has a fever, headache, nausea, and weakness
E. can progress to a septicemia
A. transmitted by human feces
Plague includes
A. septicemic form; called Black Death
B. bubonic form; buboes develop
C. pneumonic form; sputum highly contagious
D. disease control; control of rodent population
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Bubonic plague is transmitted by
A. mosquitos
B. flies
C. animal bites
D. sexual contact
E. fleas
E. fleas
The causative agent of Lyme disease is
A. Ixodes scapularis
B. Borrelia hermsii
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
D. Ixodes pacificus
E. Leptospira interrogans
C. Borrelia burgdorferi
Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with
A. plague
B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
C. Q fever
D. Lyme disease
E. yellow fever
D. Lyme disease
The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with
A. Lyme disease
B. yellow fever
C. Q fever
D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
E. plague
A. Lyme disease
Lyme disease involves
A. early symptoms of fever, headache, and stiff neck
B. crippling polyarthritis, and cardiovascular and neurological problems
C. people having contact with ticks
D. treatment with antimicrobials
E. All of the following are correct
E. All of the following are correct
Lyme disease is transmitted by
A. flies
B. droplets
C. lice
D. fleas
E. ticks
E. ticks
Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include
A. vesicular lesions in oral mucosa
B. fever and pocks on skin
C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly
D.fever, severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis
E. None of the choices are correct
C. sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly
Which of the following is hemorrhagic fever?
A. yellow fever
B. trench fever
C. Q fever
D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
E. cat-scratch fever
A. yellow fever
Yellow fever and dengue fever are
A. caused by arboviruses
B. caused by viruses that disrupt capillaries and blood clotting
C. zoonoses
D. transmitted by a mosquito vector
E. All of the choices are correct
D. transmitted by a mosquito vector
Which type of hemorrhagic fever is also known as "breakbone fever" because of the severe pain in bones?
A. Lassa fever
B. Ebola
C. Marburg
D. dengue fever
E. yellow fever
D. dengue fever
Brucellosis is
A. a zoonosis
B. seen in the patient as a fluctuating fever, with headache, muscle pain, and weakness
C. also known as undulant fever
D. an occupational illness of people that work with animals
E. All of the choices are correct
C. also known as undulant fever
Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent
A. tularemia
B. plague
C. endocarditis
D. brucellosis
E. mononucleosis
D. brucellosis
Rocky Mountain spotted fever
A. is seen in highest numbers along the west coast
B. is transmitted by Ixodes ticks
C. symptoms include fever, headache, and rash
D. never has a severe complications
E. All of the choices are correct
C. symptoms include fever, headache, and rash
The symptoms that occur in cyclic 48 to 72 hour episodes in malaria patient are
A. bloody, mucus-filled stools, fever, diarrhea, and weight loss
B. fever, swollen lymph nodes, and joint pain
C. urinary frequency and pain, and vaginal discharge
D. chills, fever, and sweating
E. sore throat, low-grade fever, and swollen lymph nodes
D. chills, fever, and sweating
The cyclic bouts of fever and chills in malaria are caused by
A. liver cell lysis
B. white blood cell lysis
C. red blood cell lysis
D. neurological involvement
E. None of the choices are correct
C. red blood cell lysis
Marlaria may be prevents by
A. using bed nets sprayed with insecticide
B. eliminating standing water
C. taking prophylactic drugs
D. decreasing the mosquito population
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
The causative organism of malaria is a
A. bacterium
B. virus
C. fungus
D. protozoan
E. prion
D. protozoan
Characteristics of Bacillus anthracis include all the following except
A. capsule and exotoxins are virulence factors
B. a one-time vaccine provides lifelong immunity
C. reservoir includes infected grazing animals and contaminated soil
D. gram-positive bacillus
E. spore former
B. a one-time vaccine provides lifelong immunity
Anthrax is
A. a zoonosis
B. transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion
C. a disease that, in humans, can cause a rapidly fatal toxemia and septicemia
D. only seen sporadically in United States
E. All of the choices are correct
B. transmitted by contact, inhalation, and ingestion
The preferred treatment for anthrax is
A. penicillin
B. ciprofloxacin
C. quinine
D. doxycycline
E. chloroquine
B. ciprofloxacin
What material in skin cells provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entry?
A. lysozyme
B. keratin
C. sweat
D. sebum
E. salt
B. keratin
The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scaled skin syndrome is
A. enterotoxin
B. hemolysin
C. toxic shock syndrome toxin
D. exfoliative toxin
E. erythrogenic toxin
D. exfoliative toxin
Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin?
A. pulmonary
B. gastrointestinal
C. cutaneous
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
C. cutaneous
A common cardiovascular/ lymph system disease in AIDS patients is
A. acute endocarditis
B. Burkitt's lymphoma
C. herpes simplex virus
D. ehrlichioses
E. brucellosis
B. Burkitt's lymphoma
Retroviruses have the following characteristics except
A. glycoprotein spikes
B. DNA genome
C. enveloped
D. reverse transcriptase
E. viral genes integrate into the host genome
B. DNA genome
All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS except they
A. have an immunodeficiency
B. have CD4 T-cell titers below 200 cells/ mm3 of blood
C. get repeated, life- threatening opportunistic infections
D. can get unusual cancers and neurological disorders
E. have the highest number of cases worldwide in the United States
E. have the highest number of cases worldwide in the United States
Documented transmission of HIV involves
A. mosquitoes
B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products
C. respiratory droplets
D. contaminated food
E. All of the choices are correct
B. unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products
Which drugs interfere with the action of n HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?
A. reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B. protease inhibitors
C. fusion inhibitors
D. integrase inhibitors
E. All of the following
B. protease inhibitors
Which new class of drugs will interdere with docking onto host cells?
A. reverse transcriptase inhibitors
B. protease inhibitors
C. fusion inhibitors
D. integrase inhibitors
E. All of the following
C. fusion inhibitors
A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is
A. Leukemia
B. Hodgkin's lymphoma
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
D. melanoma
E. myeloma
C. Kaposi's sarcoma
What features of the respiratory system protect us from infection?
A. nasal hairs
B. cilia
C. mucus
D. macrophages
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which antibody is concentrated in respiratory tract?
A. IgA
B. IgE
C. IgG
D. IgM
E. All of choices are correct
A. IgA
Normal biota of the lower respiratory tract include
A. Corynebacterium
B. Candida albicans
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Staphlococcus aureus
E. None of the above are correct
E. None of the above are correct
The most common type of virus leading to rhinitis is
A. coronavirus
B. adenovirus
C. rhinovirus
D. herpes simplex virus
E. retrovirus
C. rhinovirus
Infection travels to the middle ear by way of the
A. auditory canal
B. sinuses
C. nasal cavity
D. eustachian (auditory) tubes
E. subarachnoid space
D. eustachian (auditory) tubes
The most common causative agent of otitis media is
A. Aspergillus fumigatus
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Candida albicans
D. Corynebacterium
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcal pharyngistis involves all of following except
A. a purulent exudate over the tonsils
B. it can lead to scarlet fever if it an erythrogenic toxin- producing strain
C. it can lead serious sequelae
D. it is viral in origin
E. it causes difficulty in swallowing and fever
D. it is viral in origin
The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to
A. enterotoxins
B. hemolysins
C. toxic shock syndrome toxin
D. exfoliative toxin
E. erythrogenic rash
E. erythrogenic rash
Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis can lead to all of the following except
A. scarlet fever
B. pertussis
C. rheumatic fever
D. glomerulonephritis
E. erythrogenic rash
B. pertussis
Which of the following is not true of Streptococcus pyogenes?
A. group A streptococcus
B. gram-negative
C. forms spores
D. sensitive to bacitracin
E. beta- hemolytic
C. forms spores
Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in
A. diphtheria
B. pharyngitis
C. tuberculosis
D. pertussis
E. SARS
A. diphtheria
Which of the following pertains to diphtheria?
A. results in meningitis
B. symptoms include vomiting and diarrhea
C. can be transmitted from mother's birth canal to neonate
D. prevented by the DTaP immunization
E. All of the choices are correct
D. prevented by the DTaP immunization
The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheria that causes serious systemic effects is
A. its capsules
B. metachromatic granules
C. an exotoxin
D. endospores
E. an endotoxin
C. an exotoxin
Pertussis has the following characteristics except
A. the disease progresses through several distinct stages
B. the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops"
C. the early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing
D. DTaP immunization will prevent it
E. transmission is by droplet contact
B. the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops"
The causative organism of whooping cough is
A. Bordetella pertussis
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. Cornyebacterium diphtheriae
E. Cornyebacterium diphtheriae
Respiratory syncytial virus
A. causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger
B. is highly contagious
C. is transmitted through droplet contact and fomite contamination
D. can not be prevented by vaccination at this time
A. All of the choices are correct
A. All of the choices are correct
The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is
A. catalase
B. reverse transcriptase
C. hyaluronidase
D. neuraminidase
E. kinase
D. neuraminidase
Symptoms of influenza include
A. nasal discharge, mild fever, and absence of cough
B. fever, diarrhea, and vomiting
C. fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, and nasal discharge
D. fever, sore throat, rash, and cough
E. fever and pneumonia
C. fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, and nasal discharge
Influenza vaccines include all the following except
A. an inactivated dead virus
B. the incorporation of usually three different strains
C. an attenuated nasal drops vaccine
D. the ability to provide lifelong immunity
E. an overall effectiveness of 70%-90%
D. the ability to provide lifelong immunity
Which is not correct about Mycobacterium species?
A. all species are human pathogens
B. cell walls have waxy lipids
C. they are acid fast
D. usually have a slow growth rate
E. they are long, slender rods
A. all species are human pathogens
All of the following pertain to tuberculosis except
A. live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life
B. symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats
C. lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB
D. the BCG vaccine is used in other countries
E. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis
E. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis
Tuberculin skin testing
A. injects PPD intradermally
B. uses a purified protein filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. will be positive if person has had previous exposure to TB
D. will be positive if the person has active TB
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves a/an
A. chest X ray
B. acid fast stain of sputum
C. sputum culture
D. tuberculin skin test
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which of the following causes a non-communicable pulmonary infection that resembles
A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
B. Mycobacterium kansasii
C. Mycobacterium scrofulaceum
D. Mycobacterium fortuitum complex
E. Mycobacterium marinum
A. Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)
The tubercles formed in primary tuberculosis are caused by an influx of
A. neutrophils
B. basophils
C. mononuclear leukocytes
D. polymorphonuclear leukocytes
E. antibodies
C. mononuclear leukocytes
Extrapulmonary TB ca involve the
A. kidneys
B. long bones
C. spine
D. brain
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
When the centers of tubercles break down into ______ lesions, they gradually heal by calcification that replaces normal lung tissue
A. primary
B. secondary
C. necrotic caseous
D. granuloma
E. tertiary
C. necrotic caseous
Streptococcus pneumoniae is
A. alpha-hemolytic on blood sugar
B. often referred to as pneumococcus
C. a gram-negative diplococcus with a capsule
D. most likely to cause infection in older adults
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters?
A. legionellosis
B. pertussis
C. brucellosis
D. plague
E. traveler's diarrhea
A. legionellosis
Hantavirus has all of the following characteristics except
A. a reservoir is human carriers
B. it is a zoonotic infection
C. the symptoms are abrupt fever, lung edema, respiratory distress
D. it is transmitted by aerosol transmission from rodent excreta
E. the first US outbreak occurred in 1993 in the southwest
A. a reservoir is human carriers
This opportunist is the most frequent cause of life-threatening pneumonia in AIDS patients:
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Candida albicans
C. Malassezia furfur
D. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
E. None of the choices are correct
D. Pneumocystis (carinii) jiroveci
Drug resistant strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae are now treated with
A. penicillin v
B. eryrthromycin
C. tetracyline
D. vancomycin
E. cefotaxime
E. cefotaxime
Which organ of the GI tract has large commensal population of microorganisms?
A. liver
B. salivary glands
C. pancreas
D. large intestine
E. small intestine
D. large intestine
The causative organism for mumps is
A. Paramyxovirus
B. Morbillivirus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Corynebacterium
E. Vibrio
A. Paramyxovirus
The virulence factor for mumps is
A. inflammation
B. acid production
C. endotoxin
D. enterotoxin
E. spike-induced syncytium
E. spike-induced syncytium
Orchitis and epididymitis are seen in young adult males as a complication of
A. croup
B. mumps
C. influenza
D. measles (rubeola)
E. rubella
B. mumps
Helicobacter pylori
A. gastritis
B. duodenal ulcers
C. stomach ulcers
D. increased risk for stomach cancer
E. All of the following are correct
A. gastritis
Which of the following is mismatched?
A. H antigen-flagellar
B. K antigen- capsule
C. O antigen- cell wall
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
D. All of the choices are correct
Which is incorrect about shigellosis?
A. outbreaks have occurred in day care centers
B. watery diarrhea with bloody,mucoid stools and abdominal cramps.
C, frequently involve septicemia
D. human carriers cause fecal transmission
E. also called dysentery
C, frequently involve septicemia
E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following except it
A. only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals
B. is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger
C. causes a bloody diarrhea
D. has a reservoir of cattle intestines
E. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure
A. only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals
Which of the following statements describes the main virulence factor of E. coli 0157:H7?
A. an pathogen- encoded exotoxin
B. a bacteriophage- encoded exotoxin
C. an endotoxin used for host attachment
D. a coagulase for host clotting
E. a hemolysin for red blood cell destruction
B. a bacteriophage- encoded exotoxin
Escherichia coli infections
A. are often transmitted by fecal- contaminated water and food
B. have been due to undercooked meat
C.involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea
D. can be self- limiting with the only treatment being rehydration
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
The most common bacterial cause of diarrhea in the United States is
A. E. coli
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. Campylobacter
E. Yersinia
D. Campylobacter
`
Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium tetani
E. All of the choices are correct
C. Clostridium difficile
All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection except it
A. is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies
B. is a colitis that is a superinfection
C. often has an endogenous source
D. is associated with disruption of normal flora due to broad-spectrum antimicrobials
E. is the major cause of diarrhea in hospitals
A. is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies
Which is not true of Clostridium difficile?
A. a gram-positive, endospore forming rod
B. part of normal intestinal biota
C. infection precipitated by broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
D. also called pseudomembranous colitis
E. produces "rice-water" stools
E. produces "rice-water" stools
The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its
A. capsule
B. neurotoxin
C. invasive enzymes
D. enterotoxin
E. All of the choices are correct
D. enterotoxin
Cholera symptoms are
A. copious watery diarrhea
B. loss of blood volume
C. acidosis, sunken eyes, and thirst
D. hypotension , tachycardia, and shock
E. All of the choices are correct
E. All of the choices are correct
The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is
A. water and electrolyte replacement
B. antimicrobials
C. antitoxin
D. surgery
E. None of the choices are correct
A. water and electrolyte replacement
"Rice-water stools" are associated with disease caused by which organism?
A. cryptosporidium
B. rotavirus
C. adenovirus
D. norovirus
E. astrovirus
B. rotavirus
Which of the following is not a normal causative agent of acute diarrhea with vomiting ( food poisoning)?
A. Clostridium perfringes
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Bacillus cereus
E. All of the choices are correct
C. Clostridium difficile
